I opened 1 , showing hearts and 10+ hcp, my LHO overcalled 1 , showing spades + an unspecified minor (Michaels-like), and my partner followed with 2 , alerted by me, at the request of RHO, and explained as natural but limited to 6-9 hcp. RHO passed, I bid a non-forcing 2 , just showing a 6-card suit, and LHO passed too. At this point my partner surprisingly jumped to 3NT. As it turned up, he was much stronger than shown by his bid. His hand was in effect worth an invitation (some 12 hcp, no heart support), but, having been reminded, by my explanation to the opponents, what were our agreements about two level responsed after intervention, he decided to slightly overbid. After the deal has been played, the question was raised about the legality of his action. In general: Are explanations to the opponents treated as unauthorized information for our side or not? In the ensuing discussions, people in our small club were divided, so I would appreciate if someone could help us settle the question.

Hi everybody

We can read in 75 C :" The partnership is as explained - 2D is strong and artificial - ; the mistake was in South's call."
It is clear that South is the player who has forgot the agreement , while North's statement is right.
Later we can read : " South must not correct North's explanation immediately"
It seems to me that there is something curious in this phrase...
Have I missed something ?
Thank you in advance
Best regards, Al. Ohana